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Most Indo-European languages have verbs which endings change according to the person. I made a table with the most common (and close) languages and focussed on the category of person and the present tense, for reasons of space. The endings for each conjugation have been highlighted in red and separated from the root.

English-Italian-German-Spanish-French inflection comparison table
If you find mistakes, tell me, I'll correct them and upload the table again.

My question is: What brought English verbs to behave this way? Why also Norwegian and Swedish have the same characteristics but not German, although they are all related languages? I suppose there must be a point where they split directions.

Side question: You can add this in the end, just for completeness. I'm asking out of curiosity: Apart from Chinese and Japanese that I'm aware of (plus Swedish and Norwegian I mentioned above), are there examples of other languages with similar characteristics, regardless of being unrelated?

N.B. Japanese verbs change a bit yes, but not according to the person.

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Just to be thorough, Italian, Spanish and French are not technically related to English. English borrowed a lot of words from Latin and French (not to mention the myriad of other languages that English has borrowed from) during various phases, but it remains a (West) Germanic Language. –  Mark Tuttle Sep 21 '11 at 14:32
@Mark, Italian, Spanish, and French are Indo-European languages, and so are related to English at that level. –  JSBձոգչ Sep 21 '11 at 14:35
The table of comparison might work better if it included the Swedish and/or Norwegian discussed. –  hippietrail Sep 21 '11 at 17:35
I have a useful (if simplified) graphic of the grammaticalization cycle on p.5 of umich.edu/~jlawler/LanguageFossils.pdf –  jlawler Nov 16 '11 at 0:36
Don't forget Danish. Danish verbs also do not conjugate according to person/number. –  dainichi May 14 '12 at 6:46

3 Answers 3

up vote 15 down vote accepted

There are two things which conspired to eliminate most of the English verbal morphology:

Sound changes, especially the reduction and loss of unstressed final syllables, meant that verb forms that had been distinct in Anglo-Saxon became identical by Middle English, and lose their final bits of distinctiveness by Early Modern English. This accounts for the 1sg and all of the plural forms becoming identical in the present tense.

Social changes caused the old 2sg with thou, which had a distinct verbal ending in -st, to fall out in favor of you. This has been discussed in detail on English.SE.

The collusion of these two forces means that only the lonely 3sg form remains distinct in English.

Note that this isn't really unique to English, either. French has suffered a similar loss of unstressed final syllables, which means that in speech the French verb has lost most of its distinct forms. French spelling obscures this fact, though, as do conservative French grammar materials.

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Does that linguistic change have a name? –  Alenanno Sep 21 '11 at 15:10
I mean the one you talk about in "sound changes". –  Alenanno Sep 21 '11 at 15:24
@Alenanno: it's a combination of different things. Reduction, lenition, analogy, and probably others that don't immediately come to mind. –  JSBձոգչ Sep 21 '11 at 15:53
Thank you. (I'm writing this part here because it complains about the 15 characters length.) –  Alenanno Sep 21 '11 at 15:58
Thanks for pointing out the similar effect in French: really only -ons and -ez remain. –  Jon Purdy Sep 25 '11 at 1:09

A common cause of loss of inflection in a language community is a large influx of speakers of another language (either a close but incomprehensible dialect or one just really far away) in Extreme cases it can be similar to (or is called) pidginization, which when a coherent creole comes out has usually lost most of the inflections existing in the parent language (I don't think this is the only way to lose inflections, just one way).

For English, it is said that the invasion of the Danes (Old Norse speakers) in the north-east, and then later the Norman invasion (Old French speakers) (all languages involved were inflected) killed off most inflections in English.

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An extreme version of this idea is the Middle English creole hypothesis. –  Mechanical snail May 18 '12 at 3:41

Your question might be based on some false assumptions or gaps in your linguistics knowledge.

Firstly you need to know about linguistic typology, specifically morphological typology.

Conjugation is a type of verb morphology in inflected languages.

Languages are sometimes said to move from one morphological typology to the next in a cyclical pattern.

English has moved further down the path away from inflection than some of its siblings, but others of its siblings are doing the same.

These typologies are not as neat as they are sometimes made out to be which is why English and Japanese both don't fit neatly, but in different ways.

In inflected and agglutinating languages, the endings can cover a concept of agreement and there are different things with which to agree. Number is one, person is another. These do not all have to be present in a given language just because it has a certain morphological typology.

As for why English is losing some of its inflection, besides this being a trend for inflected languages generally, it has been suggested that one reason was that the Frisian and Norse languages which have both played a part in English's history had a lot in common but used similar inflections in different ways thus weakening them through ambiguity, making them susceptible to being lost.

As for the side question, the languages you invited comparison with, Chinese is an isolating or analytic language with no inflections and arguably no affixation. Japanese is of mixed type where its verbal system in agglutinating which means words take multiple endings attached to each other each with a meaning rather than inflectional where one ending encapsulates several meanings. Japanese is analytic in its noun system though since it uses separate particles/postpositions rather than endings.

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What false assumptions? I didn't compare anything to Chinese, nor Japanese. Those were in my side question, where I was asking if other languages didn't inflect verbs according to person. The only languages I really considered were the ones beloning to the Germanic family and also the European ones that were the most close to English. –  Alenanno Sep 21 '11 at 15:06

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