Modification of a verb from its basic form to indicate information on person, number, gender, tense, aspect, mode, voice or other grammatical categories.

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2answers
40 views

General Grammatical forms of verbs

In generalizing what I have learned from Japanese "conjugations" I learned quite a bit. I have come to the realization that the same verb forms ARE present in English although English uses cue words ...
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1answer
23 views

Common change of conjugation of the verbs in spoken languages?

Is the natural tendency of the verbs in spoken language towards more or fewer conjugations? For example, in my language, we use conjugations related to time, person, etc. In English we have ...
0
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1answer
28 views

Common change of conjugation of the verbs in spoken languages?

Is the natural tendency of the verbs in spoken language towards more or fewer conjugations? For example, in my language, we use conjugations related to time, person, etc. In English we have ...
3
votes
1answer
71 views

Verb conjugation convergence

Portuguese has a strange coincidence in the preterit perfect tense of the verbs ir (to go) and ser (to be): they are conjugated exactly equally. Portuguese — English to go | English to be Eu fui — ...
3
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1answer
94 views

Does any language conjugate adverbs?

Many definitions of adverbs, like those in Polish grammar theory, state that adverbs are an invariable part of speech (they do not conjugate with verbs) in opposite to adjectives, which decline with ...
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1answer
78 views

what would be the hypothetic result of *βεβλεπνται in Ancient Greek?

I'm talking about the third plural form of medium/passive perfect, in Ancient Greek. My grammar explains that some very simple verb like παιδεύω may be inflected that way : 1S πεπαίδευ-μαι > ...
7
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9answers
434 views

Why are there inflections?

I'm from a Chinese background. I wonder why there are inflections in many languages, as compared with no inflections in Chinese. I personally suppose that a language should originate simple and easy ...
4
votes
2answers
208 views

Why are irregular verbs usually common words?

Whilst searching for the origin of irregular verbs, I came across this forum, which points out, among other things, that irregular verbs are more often than not common words. Is there a reason for ...
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1answer
41 views

ephelcystic nu of contract verbal forms in Ancient Greek

Since some verbal forms may have an ephelcystic nu (imperfect.3S : ἐπαίδευε/ἐπαίδευεν), I would like to know if [un/]contract forms too may have this ending, as if we had ἐτίμαεν instead of ἐτίμαε and ...
3
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2answers
574 views

finite/non-finite verb = conjugated/non-conjugated verb

Are those terms totally interchangeable in all contexts (finite = conjugated) (non-finite = conjugated) or are there slight meaning differences?
7
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4answers
542 views

What are the rules to infer the vowel in-fix in Hebrew conjugation?

Hebrew verbs are based on roots. A root can provide different verbs through processes of derivation called binyanim. Each verb can be conjugated by in-fixing vowels. For instance (using the first ...
5
votes
2answers
485 views

Suppletion vs. missing verb forms

Japanese is famous for its very few irregular verbs, but there are some cases where verb-forms are missing and other verbs/adjectives are used instead. For example, (in standard Japanese) the verb ある ...
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6answers
1k views

Are there languages with a totally regular conjugation for “to be” outside Quechua?

I recently noticed that most languages have an irregular conjugation for the verb To be. I say almost because I don't know all languages, but the ones I've seen all have some irregularity sooner or ...
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4answers
2k views

Why do English verbs inflect so little, especially in regard to “person”?

Most Indo-European languages have verbs which endings change according to the person. I made a table with the most common (and close) languages and focussed on the category of person and the present ...