Modification of a verb from its basic form to indicate information on person, number, gender, tense, aspect, mode, voice or other grammatical categories.

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6
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3answers
237 views

Why does French use “be” as the auxiliary for a few verbs? [duplicate]

In French, there are a set of 17 verbs lovingly called the Vandertramps: Devenir (to become) Revenir (to come back) . & Monter (to climb) Rentrer (to reenter) Sortir (to ...
2
votes
1answer
42 views

What is the origin of declension/conjugation classes?

Languages with declension and conjugation usually have multiple declension and conjugation classes. If one were to invent a language with declension or conjugation, one would probably introduce only ...
1
vote
2answers
73 views

Is there any language in which the gender of the subject/object is marked in every verb conjugation?

Besides Spanish where you have comerla (feminine, eat her) or comerlo (masculine, eat him), but only works for certain verb conjugations. Any other language where the gender of objects/subjects is ...
1
vote
1answer
34 views

Realization of person in conjugation

The conjugation of a verb often marks person and number. Is there a language where one can actually separate these two traits or are they purely analytical? (e.g. one could image a language where a ...
0
votes
2answers
46 views

General Grammatical forms of verbs

In generalizing what I have learned from Japanese "conjugations" I learned quite a bit. I have come to the realization that the same verb forms ARE present in English although English uses cue words ...
0
votes
1answer
32 views

Common change of conjugation of the verbs in spoken languages?

Is the natural tendency of the verbs in spoken language towards more or fewer conjugations? For example, in my language, we use conjugations related to time, person, etc. In English we have ...
0
votes
1answer
45 views

Common change of conjugation of the verbs in spoken languages?

Is the natural tendency of the verbs in spoken language towards more or fewer conjugations? For example, in my language, we use conjugations related to time, person, etc. In English we have ...
3
votes
1answer
78 views

Verb conjugation convergence

Portuguese has a strange coincidence in the preterit perfect tense of the verbs ir (to go) and ser (to be): they are conjugated exactly equally. Portuguese — English to go | English to be Eu fui — ...
3
votes
1answer
118 views

Does any language conjugate adverbs?

Many definitions of adverbs, like those in Polish grammar theory, state that adverbs are an invariable part of speech (they do not conjugate with verbs) in opposite to adjectives, which decline with ...
1
vote
1answer
90 views

what would be the hypothetic result of *βεβλεπνται in Ancient Greek?

I'm talking about the third plural form of medium/passive perfect, in Ancient Greek. My grammar explains that some very simple verb like παιδεύω may be inflected that way : 1S πεπαίδευ-μαι > ...
10
votes
9answers
932 views

Why are there inflections?

I'm from a Chinese background. I wonder why there are inflections in many languages, as compared with no inflections in Chinese. I personally suppose that a language should originate simple and easy ...
5
votes
2answers
260 views

Why are irregular verbs usually common words?

Whilst searching for the origin of irregular verbs, I came across this forum, which points out, among other things, that irregular verbs are more often than not common words. Is there a reason for ...
0
votes
1answer
48 views

ephelcystic nu of contract verbal forms in Ancient Greek

Since some verbal forms may have an ephelcystic nu (imperfect.3S : ἐπαίδευε/ἐπαίδευεν), I would like to know if [un/]contract forms too may have this ending, as if we had ἐτίμαεν instead of ἐτίμαε and ...
3
votes
2answers
738 views

finite/non-finite verb = conjugated/non-conjugated verb

Are those terms totally interchangeable in all contexts (finite = conjugated) (non-finite = conjugated) or are there slight meaning differences?
8
votes
4answers
813 views

What are the rules to infer the vowel in-fix in Hebrew conjugation?

Hebrew verbs are based on roots. A root can provide different verbs through processes of derivation called binyanim. Each verb can be conjugated by in-fixing vowels. For instance (using the first ...
5
votes
2answers
662 views

Suppletion vs. missing verb forms

Japanese is famous for its very few irregular verbs, but there are some cases where verb-forms are missing and other verbs/adjectives are used instead. For example, (in standard Japanese) the verb ある ...
9
votes
9answers
2k views

Are there languages with a totally regular conjugation for “to be” outside Quechua?

I recently noticed that most languages have an irregular conjugation for the verb To be. I say almost because I don't know all languages, but the ones I've seen all have some irregularity sooner or ...
20
votes
4answers
3k views

Why do English verbs inflect so little, especially in regard to “person”?

Most Indo-European languages have verbs which endings change according to the person. I made a table with the most common (and close) languages and focussed on the category of person and the present ...