Timeline for Why there are no grammatical cases in the French language?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
17 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Feb 21, 2023 at 4:55 | answer | added | 49bmanc | timeline score: 0 | |
| May 2, 2020 at 10:01 | comment | added | Colin Fine | @phoog: You're right. I should have said "not to some of their sister languages" | |
| May 2, 2020 at 1:37 | comment | added | phoog | @ColinFine Dutch is pretty light on case (as a counter example to your assertion about sister languages of English). There are some idiomatic expressions that retain case (much as defunct English grammar is retained in phrases like suffice it to say), but the system is no longer productive. For example, you see des lands fairly frequently, but des boeks is rarely found outside older sources. | |
| Jul 31, 2017 at 2:20 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackLinguist/status/891845988427739136 | ||
| Jul 29, 2017 at 9:52 | answer | added | Houman | timeline score: 2 | |
| Apr 19, 2017 at 22:37 | comment | added | Colin Fine | As far as I know, all the Romance languages except Romanian(/Moldovan) have lost case marking from nouns. Outside Romance, this has also happened to English, Bulgarian/Macedinian, and Farsi, but not to their various sister languages. | |
| Oct 29, 2016 at 19:32 | answer | added | Eleshar | timeline score: 5 | |
| Oct 28, 2016 at 18:35 | answer | added | William | timeline score: -1 | |
| May 24, 2015 at 18:18 | comment | added | jlawler | By the way, the Romance language family is a poster child for the Grammaticalization theory of language change. This handout summarizes the phonological changes that occurred in spoken Latin around 0 CE (and did not happen in written Latin) which resulted in the collapse of the case system. | |
| May 24, 2015 at 18:12 | comment | added | jlawler | The Proto- in Proto-Germanic means that what's being talked about is not an attested language, but a reconstructed one that must represent all the knowledge we have from daughter languages and their histories. Proto-Indo-European had daughter protolanguages, etc, etc, until some of them got written down and became attested languages when modern scholars were able to read them. | |
| May 24, 2015 at 17:27 | comment | added | Mike | @JamesGrossmann, the question has been edited. BTW, what does it mean «Proto» in this specific case? | |
| May 24, 2015 at 17:26 | history | edited | Mike | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
clarified the question
|
| May 24, 2015 at 17:13 | comment | added | James Grossmann | Be careful on your facts. German is not descended from Latin; Latin and Proto-German have Proto-Indo-European as a common ancestor and are not otherwise related. | |
| May 24, 2015 at 17:05 | answer | added | user6726 | timeline score: 4 | |
| May 24, 2015 at 17:02 | comment | added | Alain Pannetier | There were 2 cases "cas regime" and "cas sujet". See this question on french.stackexchange.com. Sorry it's in French. See also this part of the "Old French" article on Wikipedia. | |
| May 24, 2015 at 16:05 | review | First posts | |||
| May 24, 2015 at 19:36 | |||||
| May 24, 2015 at 16:03 | history | asked | Mike | CC BY-SA 3.0 |