Cartago tem que ser destruída.

"Carthage must be destroyed." I'm wondering about the infinitive (ser): where does it come from? In what situations is the infinitive used after que: only with ter + que, or also with other verbs?

It looks strange to me, because I don't know of any similar construction in the other Romance languages. But it is not at all unlikely that I missed parallels: does a similar construction exist in any of them?

I know it doesn't exist in Latin: so in what way could it have developed from Latin constructions? Is it perhaps a combination of quod and the accusative with infinitive? I would appreciate any information that could help me put this construction in a broader perspective.