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Feb 18, 2016 at 23:44 answer added user8017 timeline score: 1
Feb 18, 2016 at 19:36 comment added Alex B. Gurevich 2004 is a good place to start.
Feb 18, 2016 at 19:31 comment added Alex B. Here the author(s?) reported that in Assamese "spirantization is found in the coda or the word final position" but it is never attested in word initial and medial position. Most importantly, they argued that "language specific phonotactics is bound to play a special role in the patterning of speech sounds."
Feb 18, 2016 at 16:38 comment added prash The only one I can think of is the Hindi /ph/ turning into /f/. But Hindi has a massive Persian influence. I don't know if Hindi just borrowed the /f/ and changed its /ph/s, or if this change happened in Hindi independent of Persian.
Feb 18, 2016 at 16:31 comment added Alex B. So, my comment does not directly address the OP but might be of some help?
Feb 18, 2016 at 16:25 comment added Alex B. @fdb In a way. I just re-read Bubenik 2003 and he clearly says "spirantization operated on the output of lenition (but also the original voiced stops were affected)," but it happened in intervocalic position and lenition was blocked if the original accent was on the following syllable. So voiceless aspirates were voiced in intervocalic position first, then they got spirantized and eventually got deleted.
Feb 18, 2016 at 12:01 comment added fdb @AlexB. I think he is talking about VOICED aspirates.
Feb 18, 2016 at 6:13 comment added Alex B. fwiw Bubenik 2003 argues that in Middle Indo-Aryan dialects "the output of spirantization was not stable and the resulting voiced fricatives ɣ,ð,y,v/β were deleted in most dialects" (p. 219).
Feb 18, 2016 at 4:27 answer added brass tacks timeline score: 2
Feb 18, 2016 at 3:52 history asked TKR CC BY-SA 3.0