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Nov 7, 2022 at 13:56 comment added cipricus @LjL - The problem with the part of the above answer concerning Balkan Sprachbund is that it has nothing to do with the question (why Romanian Latin roots are different from those of other Romance languages: which is a false statement anyway)
Sep 26, 2022 at 11:38 comment added cipricus Is the premise of this question even true? I had taken it for granted and gave an answer that would explain it if true. But it's not.
Nov 20, 2019 at 1:41 comment added LjL @cipricus I believe it is widely accepted that languages do not have to exhibit all the features of a sprachbund to be considered part of it, and Greek may be only a marginal member of the sprachbund for reasons like the one you mention, but just that one thing won't break the deal..
Nov 19, 2019 at 12:06 comment added cipricus The Balkan Sprachbund is present only in two Slavic languages (some may say one): Bulgarian and Macedonian. In Serbian those features are less present. So, that Bund cannot be Slavic. It cannot be Greek either, as the definite article after the noun is absent in Greek. That leaves the Bund centered on Romania, Albania, and the area between them, which coincides with the paleo-balkan substratum. But that Bund has not much to do with the question.
Apr 19, 2012 at 1:38 history answered Mark Beadles CC BY-SA 3.0