Timeline for Why in most (all?) languages don't adjectives have gender independently of the nouns they modify?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Jun 15, 2018 at 23:53 | comment | added | jlawler |
Latin grammarians considered Latin adjectives as just another class of nouns, one without inherent gender that pick it up from other nouns. Other than inherent gender, Latin adjectives behave exactly like Latin nouns, so Adjective wasn't on the original list of The 8 Parts of Speech. Its place was taken by Participle , of which Latin had plenty; that's slipped off the list since, though.
|
|
Sep 1, 2016 at 22:41 | comment | added | Colin Fine | I find your initial assertion surprising. In Latin, almost all adjectives share a declensional pattern with a class (or two classes) of nouns, and not with pronouns. (eg very few adjectives have the pronominal gen. sg. in "-ius"). | |
Aug 31, 2016 at 21:37 | vote | accept | h34 | ||
S Aug 31, 2016 at 19:01 | history | suggested | h34 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
I have put in a first sentence that summarises the answer more clearly in relation to the question
|
Aug 31, 2016 at 16:23 | review | Suggested edits | |||
S Aug 31, 2016 at 19:01 | |||||
Aug 30, 2016 at 20:31 | history | answered | Eleshar | CC BY-SA 3.0 |