Skip to main content
20 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jan 11 at 21:59 comment added Anixx If it uses ng for /ŋ/, it is not phonemic already. The question was abouy one to one correspondence between characters and phonemes
Jun 4, 2022 at 23:06 history edited Gaston Ümlaut CC BY-SA 4.0
Added link
S Jun 4, 2022 at 5:43 history suggested Glorfindel CC BY-SA 4.0
2 broken links fixed, cf. https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/a/34713/228959
Jun 3, 2022 at 8:00 review Suggested edits
S Jun 4, 2022 at 5:43
May 28, 2019 at 19:02 comment added Ivan Golović @LjL Diacritics pronounced like in English would be: 1) Č (capital), č - pronounced like in English "ch", 2) Ć, ć - "ch" but softer than "č", 3) Š, š - "sh", 4) Ž, ž - "zh" Here is how I pronounced č, ć, š, ž respectively: drive.google.com/open?id=11LpCHCy0WbwRVvMo-jUgnojcZn4_yv8h
May 27, 2019 at 17:59 comment added LjL @IvanG how do you pronounce a diacritic?
May 17, 2019 at 19:12 comment added Ivan Golović I am no linguist but Croatian is my first language and it is so phonemic that I used to find it a bit odd that other languages had different spelling and pronounciation when I first started learning them. Diacritics are used always, written and pronounced, they sound very different and can be distinguished easily when pronounced.
S May 6, 2019 at 9:35 history suggested Miztli CC BY-SA 4.0
minor edits
May 5, 2019 at 11:32 review Suggested edits
S May 6, 2019 at 9:35
Oct 6, 2015 at 3:41 comment added Gaston Ümlaut @CJDennis I admit I was cheating in my wording... those languages when written 1000+ years ago were not in their modern forms 'as now spoken' (and modern day speakers of those languages would mostly not understand their ancestral tongues as spoken 1000 years ago). Apart of course from languages that already had no native-speaking community so were preserved rigidly e.g. Latin, Ancient Greek, etc (incl. Hebrew).
Oct 6, 2015 at 3:06 comment added CJ Dennis @Gaston Arabic, Hebrew, Georgian, Armenian, Chinese... should I go on?
Oct 5, 2015 at 22:24 comment added Gaston Ümlaut Hi @CJDennis, no language now spoken had a written form until relatively recently (leaving aside languages such as classical latin, ancient greek, etc), the last 1000 years or so. And most of the languages that are now written only came to be so within the last 100 years. Anyway, the OP made no mention of excluding recently developed writing systems.
Oct 5, 2015 at 5:55 comment added CJ Dennis Aren't Australian languages a bad example? As far as I know, no Australian language had a written form before the arrival of Europeans, therefore when creating a written language it makes sense to keep the orthography consistent.
Jan 26, 2013 at 23:37 comment added Mechanical snail Also, Malay orthography doesn't distinguish the phonemes /e/ and /ə/, and doesn't distinguish hiatus between adjacent vowels.
May 24, 2012 at 2:50 comment added Gaston Ümlaut @Mechanicalsnail You're quite right, the standard orthography does not show pitch-accent and so is not perfectly phonemic. Having said that, there are not many minimal pairs for the pitch-accent and there is a standard set of diacritics that are typically used in dictionaries and are (I believe) understood by speakers.
May 23, 2012 at 23:20 comment added Mechanical snail Doesn't Serbo-Croatian have distinctive pitch accent, which isn't represented at all in the orthography?
May 20, 2012 at 14:07 history edited Gaston Ümlaut CC BY-SA 3.0
added 5 characters in body
May 20, 2012 at 13:41 history edited Gaston Ümlaut CC BY-SA 3.0
Fixed error
May 20, 2012 at 9:51 history edited Alenanno CC BY-SA 3.0
added 45 characters in body
May 20, 2012 at 6:11 history answered Gaston Ümlaut CC BY-SA 3.0