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Based on the tags and his other posts (http://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/21373/why-do-so-many-grammars-divide-a-clause-into-subject-and-verb-instead-of-subject), 'sentence parts' should refer to GRs.
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edit approved Mar 20, 2017 at 3:41
WavesWashSands
edit approved Mar 20, 2017 at 3:41
WavesWashSands
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Do all languages have the same set of sentence partsgrammatical relations?

As for parts of speechesspeech, I am quite sure it is not the case.

For instance, some languages are problematic in separating clearly verbs from adjectives like Japanese and Korean, some native American languages seem to have much less categories than Indo-European. Since Since each part of speech corresponds withto a phrase, the phrases can't be universal either.

Now sentence partsgrammatical relations are like roles certain phrases can take, and it strikes me intuitively, that these roles are limited by logic and can't allow for idiosyncrasies like partparts of speechesspeech can.

But is it really so, are not even some sentence parts universal among languages but each language has the same set of them?

Do all languages have the same set of sentence parts?

As for parts of speeches, I am quite sure it is not the case.

For instance, some languages are problematic in separating clearly verbs from adjectives like Japanese and Korean, some native American languages seem to have much less categories than Indo-European. Since each part of speech corresponds with a phrase, the phrases can't be universal either.

Now sentence parts are like roles certain phrases can take and it strikes me intuitively, that these roles are limited by logic and can't allow for idiosyncrasies like part of speeches can.

But is it really so, are not even some sentence parts universal among languages but each language has the same set of them?

Do all languages have the same set of grammatical relations?

As for parts of speech, I am quite sure it is not the case.

For instance, some languages are problematic in separating clearly verbs from adjectives like Japanese and Korean, some native American languages seem to have much less categories than Indo-European. Since each part of speech corresponds to a phrase, the phrases can't be universal either.

Now grammatical relations are like roles certain phrases can take, and it strikes me intuitively that these roles are limited by logic and can't allow for idiosyncrasies like parts of speech can.

But is it really so, are not even some sentence parts universal among languages but each language has the same set of them?

added 6 characters in body
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Sir Cornflakes
Sir Cornflakes
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As for parts of speeches, I am quietquite sure it is not the case.

For instance, some languages are problematic in separating clearly verbs from adjectives like Japanese and Korean, some native American languages seem to have much less categories than Indo-European. Since each part of speech corresponds with a phrase  , the phrases can't be universal either.

Now sentence parts are like roles certain phrases can take and it strikes me intuitively  , that these roles are limited by logic and can't allow for idiosyncrasies like part of speeches can.

But is it really so, are not even some sentence parts universal among languages but each language has the same set of them?

As for parts of speeches, I am quiet sure it is not the case.

For instance some languages are problematic in separating clearly verbs from adjectives like Japanese and Korean, some native American languages seem to have much less categories than Indo-European. Since each part of speech corresponds with a phrase  , the phrases can't be universal either.

Now sentence parts are like roles certain phrases can take and it strikes me intuitively  , that these roles are limited by logic and can't allow for idiosyncrasies like part of speeches can.

But is it really so, are not even some sentence parts universal among languages but each language has the same set of them?

As for parts of speeches, I am quite sure it is not the case.

For instance, some languages are problematic in separating clearly verbs from adjectives like Japanese and Korean, some native American languages seem to have much less categories than Indo-European. Since each part of speech corresponds with a phrase, the phrases can't be universal either.

Now sentence parts are like roles certain phrases can take and it strikes me intuitively, that these roles are limited by logic and can't allow for idiosyncrasies like part of speeches can.

But is it really so, are not even some sentence parts universal among languages but each language has the same set of them?

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Abdul Al Hazred
Abdul Al Hazred
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Do all languages have the same set of sentence parts?

As for parts of speeches, I am quiet sure it is not the case.

For instance some languages are problematic in separating clearly verbs from adjectives like Japanese and Korean, some native American languages seem to have much less categories than Indo-European. Since each part of speech corresponds with a phrase , the phrases can't be universal either.

Now sentence parts are like roles certain phrases can take and it strikes me intuitively , that these roles are limited by logic and can't allow for idiosyncrasies like part of speeches can.

But is it really so, are not even some sentence parts universal among languages but each language has the same set of them?