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Mar 21, 2017 at 5:37 history tweeted twitter.com/StackLinguist/status/844060425012633601
S Mar 20, 2017 at 3:41 history suggested WavesWashSands CC BY-SA 3.0
Based on the tags and his other posts (http://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/21373/why-do-so-many-grammars-divide-a-clause-into-subject-and-verb-instead-of-subject), 'sentence parts' should refer to GRs.
Mar 17, 2017 at 19:24 vote accept Abdul Al Hazred
Mar 17, 2017 at 19:22 review Suggested edits
S Mar 20, 2017 at 3:41
Mar 17, 2017 at 19:21 answer added WavesWashSands timeline score: 8
Mar 14, 2017 at 15:11 review Close votes
Mar 16, 2017 at 7:54
Mar 14, 2017 at 14:11 comment added WavesWashSands @jknappen I believe the OP is referring to GRs, not phrases or POS... His post is, if I interpret it correctly, 'I don't think POSes are universal - so are GRs not universal too?'
Mar 14, 2017 at 11:37 comment added Sir Cornflakes And note this question and its answers linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/21185/… and see also this one: linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/4026/…
Mar 14, 2017 at 11:34 history edited Sir Cornflakes CC BY-SA 3.0
added 6 characters in body
Mar 14, 2017 at 11:33 comment added Sir Cornflakes Look at this question and its answers: linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/12777/…
Mar 14, 2017 at 4:13 comment added WavesWashSands They're called grammatical relations in English, not sentence parts (though that's what we call them in Chinese and possibly your native language as well). The short answer to this is that it depends on your perspective; I'll write more on this here if I get more time and a better answer doesn't appear before then. :)
Mar 13, 2017 at 21:04 history asked Abdul Al Hazred CC BY-SA 3.0