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Oct 26, 2017 at 16:55 comment added Colin Fine @Haseo: you seemed to be distinguishing English and Portuguese, and I didn't understand why, since they are almost identical with respect to the features you are talking aobut. Nobody "decided" to keep case marking on personal pronouns in English: it's just what happened.
Oct 25, 2017 at 21:41 comment added Davyd @ColinFine - Why not coherent? In fact, case-marking system in both English and Portuguese is almost vestigial, and that's exactly what I am asking; there is no need to have a morphological change onto the personal pronouns since it is a nominative-accusative language, as you, yourself, said: "whether a language is nominative-accusative or some other arrangement is completely independent of whether it uses case marking"; however, something came into my mind, probably over the time, case-marking system in English reduced almost to zero, but they decided to keep them on personal pronouns.
Oct 22, 2017 at 20:37 review Close votes
Nov 9, 2017 at 3:04
Oct 20, 2017 at 12:34 comment added Darkgamma English isn't rigidly SVO either, but rather it's more rigidly just SV, with OSV allowed for emphasis ("the cow I did see, but not the dog"). You don't need rigid SVO
Oct 20, 2017 at 12:33 comment added Atamiri A language's word order becomes more rigid as it loses case marking (unless there's some other mechanism at play such as in Macedonian or Abkhaz which have no case-marking on nouns yet free word order).
Oct 20, 2017 at 11:17 comment added Colin Fine Your question is not very coherent. Case marking is vestigial in both Portuguese and English (limited to personal pronouns). Secondly whether a language is nominative-accusative or some other arrangement is completely independent of whether it uses case marking.
Oct 20, 2017 at 9:33 history edited Sir Cornflakes
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Oct 19, 2017 at 18:12 answer added user6726 timeline score: 3
Oct 19, 2017 at 17:50 history asked Davyd CC BY-SA 3.0