Timeline for Intrusive misspelling - does it have any origin?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
15 events
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Apr 29, 2019 at 10:33 | history | edited | Be Brave Be Like Ukraine | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
see: https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/31113/why-does-thai-have-no-words-for-yes-or-no/31115#comment68030_31115
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S Apr 29, 2019 at 10:18 | history | suggested | Miztli | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
mainly formatting
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Apr 29, 2019 at 9:42 | review | Suggested edits | |||
S Apr 29, 2019 at 10:18 | |||||
Mar 10, 2019 at 14:59 | answer | added | vectory | timeline score: -1 | |
Sep 27, 2012 at 16:17 | vote | accept | Be Brave Be Like Ukraine | ||
Sep 27, 2012 at 16:00 | answer | added | Mitch | timeline score: 9 | |
Sep 27, 2012 at 9:02 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackLinguist/status/251245542343049216 | ||
Sep 26, 2012 at 6:33 | comment | added | acattle | Building off @ROBOKiTTY : I have cited Loanword adaptation as first-language phonological perception by Boersma and Hamann several times on this site. If one accepts their premise of a productive perception phase, influenced by the listener's personal phonology, then they generate URs of words inline with that phonology. Given the phonetic nature of the writing systems in question, it isn't too far of a leap to think that they generating the written form from their own personal UR. | |
Sep 25, 2012 at 23:36 | comment | added | Be Brave Be Like Ukraine |
@ROBOKiTTY Two last Thai examples do not illustrate the question. They illustrate an opposite tendency or cluster assimilation (reduction), which is by itself described very well. On the contrary, [ro-ti] never used to have an extra [r] within; likewise [drawing] does not seem to be a reversal of any prior reduction.
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Sep 25, 2012 at 23:18 | comment | added | ROBOKiTTY | The second set of Thai examples look like systematic cluster reductions, if they reflect real pronunciation, at least by some people. | |
Sep 25, 2012 at 23:16 | comment | added | Colin Fine | It seems to me that the question of spelling is incidental: if they are spelt that way, it is because they are pronounced that way, at least by some people. And the incidence of both phenomena in Thai is no surprise at all: it suggests that there are people for whom the difference between, say, [triː] and [tiː] is neutralised, at least in some contexts, so it then becomes a job of memorisation to recall which word is spelt <tr> and which <t>. | |
Sep 25, 2012 at 23:08 | comment | added | ROBOKiTTY | Assuming the others have a similar sort of phonetic basis, the Thai example would be progressive/preservative assimilation, where features from the first syllable bleeds into the second. The Ukrainian example would be the opposite, regressive/anticipatory assimilation. These may be idiosyncratic or perhaps dialectal phonological processes. | |
Sep 25, 2012 at 23:00 | comment | added | ROBOKiTTY | I don't know about the others, but 'drawring' mirrors how it is pronounced in many dialects. There's a tendency across languages that disfavours hiatus, and that happens to be how non-rhotic dialects of English deal with it. | |
Sep 25, 2012 at 17:29 | history | edited | Be Brave Be Like Ukraine | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added another sample
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Sep 25, 2012 at 16:02 | history | asked | Be Brave Be Like Ukraine | CC BY-SA 3.0 |