Timeline for Why Did Koiné Greek Still Write Double Letters?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
16 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Nov 28, 2017 at 4:50 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackLinguist/status/935370250710867968 | ||
| Nov 27, 2017 at 20:48 | vote | accept | Matthew T. Scarbrough | ||
| Nov 27, 2017 at 15:17 | answer | added | Luke Sawczak | timeline score: 3 | |
| Nov 21, 2017 at 4:55 | comment | added | Matthew T. Scarbrough | @WiccanKarnak Yeah, I decided to make it a bit more clear. It is an historical linguistics question. I understand that a language will probably keep double letters from its past, but their pronunciation may change, or fulfill different purposes. I am hinting heavily that I refuse to believe that some double letters had no difference from the normal sound. | |
| Nov 21, 2017 at 4:36 | comment | added | WiccanKarnak | @user6726 I am really sorry, am slowly understanding the question now and it's definitely not language specific, but linguistic. And no thanks, I do know the difference b/w single language and language specific questions. | |
| Nov 21, 2017 at 2:12 | history | edited | Matthew T. Scarbrough | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 101 characters in body; edited title
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| S Nov 21, 2017 at 2:08 | history | suggested | CommunityBot | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Not beating around the bush, but clarified.
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| Nov 20, 2017 at 22:43 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Nov 21, 2017 at 2:08 | |||||
| Nov 20, 2017 at 16:02 | comment | added | user6726 | No, it's unclear what he's asking, and especially too broad, but it's apparently about a matter of historical change. Questions about the syntactic structure of English are not "language specific" in the close-reason sense. There's no requirement that a question has to involve two languages, and this one does anyhow since Ancient and Modern Greek are different languages. | |
| Nov 20, 2017 at 6:34 | comment | added | WiccanKarnak | Is this not a language specific question? @user6726 | |
| Nov 20, 2017 at 0:49 | review | Close votes | |||
| Nov 22, 2017 at 23:50 | |||||
| Nov 19, 2017 at 23:59 | comment | added | Matthew T. Scarbrough | In long, it's more of an over-all history question. Mine interest is particularly within Koiné, but I figured it would be better to just go with all three, to show a history there. It's better for three separate questions -- greek is such an old language. | |
| Nov 19, 2017 at 23:51 | comment | added | Matthew T. Scarbrough | I am asking wherefore the doubles came about, and how they were pronounced in each of the "major" stages of greek, for the lamen, so I would say: pre-"biblical-era Koine," biblical era, and then what we know today as greek. I established my case in why I ask it with the consideration of the letter veeta/beeta, and how a hebrew word was transliterated into Greek. | |
| Nov 19, 2017 at 23:37 | comment | added | user6726 | Which part is the question? Are you asking how doubled consonants are pronounced in Ancient Greek, or Modern greek, or stages in between? Are you asking what the historical origin of ττ, κκ, γγ etc are? | |
| Nov 19, 2017 at 23:37 | comment | added | brass tacks | The consensus is simply that consonants written double (aside from γγ, where "γ" was used as a way to represent [ŋ] as you mentioned) were pronounced double or long in Ancient Greek. See Can a syllable be open before a lenghtened consonant? and geminate or long consonants in Ancient Greek? I don't know if there were any interesting changes to this convention in later types of Greek, though. | |
| Nov 19, 2017 at 22:57 | history | asked | Matthew T. Scarbrough | CC BY-SA 3.0 |