Timeline for At what point did the feminine ending fall silent in Semitic languages?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| May 3, 2019 at 9:29 | comment | added | vectory | *ah' (brother) vs *ahwat (sister) implies *-wat as the suffix, I thought. | |
| Apr 30, 2019 at 15:21 | vote | accept | Draconis♦ | ||
| Apr 30, 2019 at 15:20 | comment | added | Draconis♦ | @amegnunsen Reasonable, but unfortunately borrowings and transcriptions are the best source for historical pronunciation I know of. | |
| Apr 30, 2019 at 10:57 | answer | added | fdb | timeline score: 8 | |
| Apr 30, 2019 at 7:56 | comment | added | amegnunsen | What foreign peoples transcribe on other languages, it is not always faithful to the real pronunciation. For example, Roman and Arabic people always did not and do not transcribe the final consonant /n/ (plural marker) of Berber proper nouns (eg. MSNSN was transcribed MaSiNiSa). So I will not base any dating on foreign transcriptions. | |
| Apr 30, 2019 at 6:00 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackLinguist/status/1123104878627368960 | ||
| Apr 29, 2019 at 22:35 | history | asked | Draconis♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |