Timeline for Why is Spanish SVO and not VSO?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Oct 17, 2020 at 18:46 | comment | added | jlawler | And so is Guanabana quiero yo. But word order depends on lexical items, not inflections, and pronouns are part of grammar, not lexicon. | |
| Oct 17, 2020 at 12:14 | answer | added | Alex | timeline score: 1 | |
| May 23, 2020 at 18:55 | answer | added | Qwertuy | timeline score: 0 | |
| May 21, 2020 at 20:36 | comment | added | Atamiri | Spanish is a pro-drop language. Only overt pronouns are considered in analysing word order. Hence Spanish is predominantly SVO though “compro yo los zapatos” is also well-formed. | |
| May 21, 2020 at 19:11 | answer | added | user6726 | timeline score: 5 | |
| May 21, 2020 at 18:22 | comment | added | Tsutsu | You’re asking why Spanish is svo though it’s a pro-drop language. Less obvious why is also with Italian. But there’s no answer for such a question. Some languages fix SVO other fix VSO word order during acquisition.. some fix SVO and pro-drop (spanish/italian) some don’t (english).. even some VSO languages drop the pronoun (Arabic). Why they drop the pronoun? The answer is that they have rich verbal morphology. This is the only answer given in the literature. Spanish may become a VSo language one day. Who knows. | |
| May 21, 2020 at 18:09 | review | First posts | |||
| May 21, 2020 at 20:21 | |||||
| May 21, 2020 at 18:01 | history | asked | ReeniePie | CC BY-SA 4.0 |