Timeline for What is the notion of lemma?

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Sep 4, 2016 at 20:40 answer added DMF timeline score: -4
Dec 26, 2015 at 18:59 vote accept alvas
Dec 2, 2014 at 14:00 history edited hippietrail
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Dec 1, 2014 at 11:04 answer added Eypros timeline score: 2
S Nov 29, 2013 at 13:52 history bounty ended CommunityBot
S Nov 29, 2013 at 13:52 history notice removed CommunityBot
S Nov 21, 2013 at 12:19 history bounty started alvas
S Nov 21, 2013 at 12:19 history notice added alvas Authoritative reference needed
S Jul 30, 2013 at 9:48 history suggested dainichi
Not about phycholinguistics, but about lexicography
Jul 30, 2013 at 8:26 comment added dainichi @hippietrail, I agree, this is not about the psycholinguistic definition of lemma, but the lexicographic one. A psycholinguistic lemma does not have a phonological form. Edited the question.
Jul 30, 2013 at 8:25 review Suggested edits
S Jul 30, 2013 at 9:48
Jul 30, 2013 at 3:27 comment added Ryno Sorry, I meant to imply "in english", but yes, that would make a good question :)
Jul 30, 2013 at 3:21 comment added hippietrail @Ryno: Some languages have no infinitive, some have multiple infinitives, some have finite infinitives! You could surely make a good new question about infinitives. Often the lemma is the form with the fewest inflectional affixes - but not always. This makes the lemma the usable form closest to the stem, which often cannot be used in a bare form. In fact for these reasons I doubt that this is a psycholinguistics question at all because there's some amount of arbitrariness where somebody decides which form to use as a lemma.
Jul 29, 2013 at 21:55 comment added Ryno I was always under the impression that the infinitive was the "canonical form" of a verb. (ie, "to be", rather than "he is") Is there another term that describes what the infinitive is?
Jul 29, 2013 at 14:43 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackLinguist/status/361859654747295744
Jul 29, 2013 at 9:54 history edited hippietrail
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Jul 29, 2013 at 9:54 comment added hippietrail 3rs person singular present. For nouns it's not the singular for pluralia tantum such as scissors, pants, trousers, spectacles, etc. though a singular for each of those may also have an entry. Normal dictionaries group multi-word expressions into the entries for one of the words so they safely avoid having to lemmatize them. Georgian dictionaries present a case of a language where there is not agreement of which form is the lemma for verbs. Mine all use the verbal noun in perfective and/or imperfective form whereas Wiktionary uses 1st person singular present indicative.
Jul 29, 2013 at 9:31 history asked alvas CC BY-SA 3.0