Timeline for How does expressing possession vary across language families?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dec 9, 2013 at 7:51 | comment | added | Manjusri | That's actually a posessive pronoun in communicative [or evidential] persons only (1st and 2nd, Sg. and Pl. alike), and the genitive construction is used for the [descriptive or non-evidential] 3rd person only (both Sg. and Pl. alike as well). | |
| Sep 16, 2013 at 14:12 | history | edited | jogloran | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 171 characters in body
|
| Sep 16, 2013 at 13:23 | vote | accept | Manishearth | ||
| Sep 16, 2013 at 1:28 | comment | added | jogloran | Similarly with the Russian construction, whose complement is in the genitive. | |
| Sep 16, 2013 at 0:26 | comment | added | jlawler | They're grouping Dative with Locative, so Hebrew Yesh li 'I have', lit 'There is to me' would also be type 1. | |
| Sep 15, 2013 at 14:51 | history | edited | jogloran | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 90 characters in body
|
| Sep 15, 2013 at 14:40 | history | answered | jogloran | CC BY-SA 3.0 |