Timeline for How does tense evolve from a tenseless parent language?
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7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 2 at 11:35 | comment | added | Cairnarvon | @JanusBahsJacquet Sure, yeah. It could still count as an example because the development of the primary endings is what introduced a present and past tense into a previously tenseless system, it's just something that happened in Pre-PIE instead of Greek. | |
| Jun 2 at 8:52 | comment | added | Janus Bahs Jacquet | @Cairnarvon In that case, it’s just a matter of terminology, surely. As I was taught it, that’s called the imperfective in Greek as well (as opposed to the aorist and perfective). The present and imperfect are tenses within the imperfective aspect in both PIE and Greek. | |
| Jun 2 at 2:06 | comment | added | Cairnarvon | @JanusBahsJacquet The PIE imperfective became the entire Greek present stem, not just the imperfect tense. | |
| Jun 1 at 22:38 | comment | added | Janus Bahs Jacquet | @Lambie The can is correct. It means, “if you look up [where the present tense can evolve from = possible ways that present tenses can come into existence] in either of [the two sources]”. | |
| Jun 1 at 14:20 | comment | added | Lambie | [If you look up x, you are told//where the present tense evolves from or evolved from, no can] | |
| Jun 1 at 12:24 | comment | added | Janus Bahs Jacquet | “Attic Greek, where the PIE imperfective became present” — Er, it does? Where exactly? The augment is optional even in Epic Greek, but becomes more solidified in Classical Greek, but apart from that, the PIE imperfect generally remains imperfect in Attic, as far as I know. // Presumably, the imperfect won’t normally turn into a present if the language has no other way of marking the imperfect; more likely would be the emergence of a new, secondary imperfect, leaving the old imperfect free to be reinterpreted as a present. | |
| Jun 1 at 11:11 | history | asked | Arcaeca | CC BY-SA 4.0 |