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S Oct 24 at 12:39 history suggested Segorian CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 24 at 11:51 review Suggested edits
S Oct 24 at 12:39
Oct 23 at 17:31 comment added Lambie I remember arguing with someone about this for Italian. In English, there is one sound but in Italian two sounds for a word like frittata. That's what makes Italian so charming.
Oct 23 at 15:09 answer added brass tacks timeline score: 3
Oct 23 at 13:42 comment added Janus Bahs Jacquet The reason we tend to use /t.t/ as phonetically equivalent to /tː/ is that usually they are equivalent. It is almost universally the case that when two identical occlusive phonemes directly follow each other, there will be only one physical occlusion and one release for the group, unless they’re deliberately pronounced very distinctly and separately (e.g., ‘but to go’ is normally [bət̚.tʰə ˈɡəʊ], while ‘but: to go’ might be [ˈbətʰ | tʰə ˈɡəʊ]).
Oct 23 at 12:21 vote accept Agente 156
Oct 23 at 10:45 answer added Someone211 timeline score: 3
Oct 23 at 9:44 history edited Agente 156 CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Oct 23 at 9:38 review First questions
Oct 23 at 12:30
S Oct 23 at 9:38 history asked Agente 156 CC BY-SA 4.0