Timeline for Why are Latin descendants SVO?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
14 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Oct 29, 2020 at 21:36 | comment | added | Atamiri | @dainichi It can. In actual fact their are languages without cases that have extremely free word order (at the clause level) such as Abkhaz or Macedonian. | |
| Oct 29, 2020 at 15:07 | answer | added | Alex | timeline score: 8 | |
| Oct 15, 2014 at 13:09 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackLinguist/status/522373771949133824 | ||
| Sep 17, 2014 at 14:46 | comment | added | dainichi | @YellowSky, I don't understand your arguments. Why do you need a separator? Why can't SOV order be a syntactical way to mark the subject and object? | |
| Sep 12, 2014 at 12:30 | answer | added | fdb | timeline score: 3 | |
| Sep 11, 2014 at 18:48 | comment | added | sergiol | @YellowSky: Your first comment implies that all languages following the SOV, VOS, VSO and VOS patterns need to have a case system. Are you so sure of this assertion? | |
| Sep 11, 2014 at 18:34 | comment | added | sergiol | @YellowSky: 'Eu te amo' is Brazilian. In Portugal's Portuguese is 'Eu amo-te'. | |
| Sep 11, 2014 at 17:19 | comment | added | TKR | Humanum is not an object in Errare humanum est, but a predicate. | |
| Sep 11, 2014 at 15:32 | comment | added | Yellow Sky | @jlawler - Romance personal pronouns keep the subject vs. object forms, that's why, if the object is expressed by a personal pronoun, the sentence is still SVO. But this doesn't work if the object is expressed by a noun. That's all that I meant. | |
| Sep 11, 2014 at 14:50 | comment | added | jlawler | @YellowSky: Lushootseed uses VSO without cases, but it's polysynthetic and rarely has more than one noun in a clause. I agree, SVO is a cheap solution to accusative depletion, but the pronoun clitics in Romance languages are probably on their way down the gravity well toward the affix horizon via grammaticalization, rather than heralding a new Object position. | |
| Sep 11, 2014 at 14:43 | history | edited | jlawler | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Sep 11, 2014 at 14:42 | comment | added | Yellow Sky | Ah, by the way, do the French 'Je t'aime', Portuguese 'Eu te amo', Spanish 'Eu te amo' (I love you) seem really SVO to you? :) | |
| Sep 11, 2014 at 14:38 | comment | added | Yellow Sky | Since the descendents lost the case system, they had to introduce a kind of a new separator that separarates the 2 nominal parts of the sentence, subject and object. The only way to do that was to do it syntactically, that's to insert the verb between the subject and the object, no other way was possible. That's it. | |
| Sep 11, 2014 at 14:30 | history | asked | sergiol | CC BY-SA 3.0 |