Timeline for Why are the plural and singular first person forms of the verb "go" so different in the Romance languages?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
15 events
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| Dec 13, 2014 at 2:14 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackLinguist/status/543589664280834048 | ||
| Nov 23, 2014 at 5:12 | history | edited | hippietrail |
edited tags
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| Nov 20, 2014 at 13:38 | vote | accept | terdon | ||
| Nov 20, 2014 at 13:37 | history | edited | terdon | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Different verb you ninny,
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| Nov 20, 2014 at 13:36 | answer | added | terdon | timeline score: 8 | |
| Nov 9, 2014 at 6:08 | comment | added | siride | @Sindry: just a tangential note about "be". There are four roots involved in the conjugation, but they are not "be/am/is/are", but rather "be/is/are/was", with "am" and "is" from the same root, despite appearances to the contrary. | |
| Nov 7, 2014 at 6:20 | comment | added | user0721090601 | Also, Spanish does have mild overlap with ir/andar in the vos imperative. Some consider ir defective there, but to say "go away", you'd have vete (tú), idos (vosotros), váya(n)se (Vd(s).), but andate (vos) | |
| S Nov 7, 2014 at 3:06 | history | suggested | curiousdannii♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Latin->Romance and general proof read
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| Nov 7, 2014 at 3:01 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Nov 7, 2014 at 3:06 | |||||
| Nov 7, 2014 at 1:39 | comment | added | terdon | @Sindry fair enough. I checked the Spanish dictionary of the Real Academia and it just said that ir came from ire but no mention of the other forms. Searching Wiktionary didn't occur to me oddly enough. | |
| Nov 7, 2014 at 1:30 | comment | added | Sindry | The origin of "andar/e" is still controversal. As for those f- forms, they apparently come from the past forms of "sum (to be)" as you can see in the simple past forms of "be" verbs in other Romance languages. I don't think this is worth whipping up an answer as all the information I posted here is what I got from simplys looking up in Wiktionary except for the name of the phenomenon (suppletion). | |
| Nov 7, 2014 at 1:07 | comment | added | terdon | @Sindry thanks! I was trying to bring in the Spanish and Italian andar/e but couldn't figure out where it came from. I guess it's also from alare. Would that mean the f- forms are from a fourth verb? Any chance of whipping this up into an answer? | |
| Nov 7, 2014 at 0:55 | comment | added | Sindry | This is an example of "suppletion". English also has one of these ("go/went", "be/am/is/are"). Those verbs in Romance languages originate from fusions in conjugated forms of different verbs, namely "ire (to go)", "vadere (to walk)", "alare (Vulgar Latin:to go)". | |
| Nov 7, 2014 at 0:30 | history | edited | terdon | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
General clean up
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| Nov 7, 2014 at 0:17 | history | asked | terdon | CC BY-SA 3.0 |