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In all other romance languages, to go + infinitive means that the action will happen in a near future, which makes sense intuitively, because metaphorically, we move toward an event which has not happened, thus is in the future.

In Catalan, though, the passat perifràstic uses anar + infinitiu to express a past event which is now over.

What could make the language reverse the original meaning of the construction?

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  • Ok, I see what you mean now but I think you need to rephrase a bit...
    – Lambie
    Commented Dec 5, 2023 at 19:15
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    This paper explains its emergence in the late Middle Ages and I don't want to cut and past the entire thing: oxfordre.com/linguistics/oso/viewentry/…).
    – Lambie
    Commented Dec 5, 2023 at 19:20

1 Answer 1

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Unfortunately, I don't remember the source, but I believe I once read the Catalan "go-perfect" may come from the way in which one thing is made to follow another when you tell a story. It "goes on" from one thing to the next. Being a German, it also reminds me a lot of an idiomatic way of highlighting someone's next action, by saying: "und er geht her und..." (and he goes there and...), which does not imply literal going (movement) any more (it's rather something like resolution perhaps). This German construction is also used in the (morphological) present tense, understood as an "historic present", when you tell a story.

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    That construction is used in English as well: “then he goes and [does something]”, “he’s only gone and done it”, etc. Not sure how that translates to a perfective aspect, though? Commented Dec 5, 2023 at 19:05
  • What is "it" in it may come from?
    – Lambie
    Commented Dec 5, 2023 at 19:07
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    @Janus: Because of the connection to a narrative tense?
    – Alazon
    Commented Dec 5, 2023 at 19:09
  • @Lambie: "it" was the topic :) (edited the answer)
    – Alazon
    Commented Dec 5, 2023 at 19:11
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    I see it is called the go-past: Catalan has two past perfective tenses: the simple past, derived from the Latin perfect (e.g., PARABOLĀVIT ‘(s)he spoke / has spoken’ > parlà), and the periphrastic past, which is formed with the verb anar ‘to go’ followed by an infinitive (e.g., va parlar ‘(s)he spoke’). The two tenses are synonymous and are used with the value of prehodiernal perfective past (35).oxfordre.com/linguistics/oso/viewentry/…).
    – Lambie
    Commented Dec 5, 2023 at 19:20

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