The question is that can one say that a Language or a Dialect is grammatically incorrect? What if I say,
Sanskrit is grammatically incorrect modern Hindi
This doesn't make sense. We cannot compare a language/dialect with some other language/dialect. I am asking this question because in some other posts some users have claimed the same. I object their claim. This answer states that,
It's terrible (incorrect) English. But here ain't means didn't. ...
Calling a dialect, terrible, is it's disrespect. We can't say that AAVE is incorrect English. It's similar to say Doabi is incorrect Punjabi. The problem seem to be the fact that ain't has a lot of different meanings which depend upon the context. There is nothing wrong with it. There are many words in a language which can have multiple meanings, e.g. the word for. Google translator says it has three different meanings. The most odd one to me is for=because
.
Question 1: Is that answer technically correct?
Another user claimed in their post:
"If it ain't broke, don't fix it" is not grammatically correct modern English
Again they are comparing an idiom of AAVE with standard English. Not only that, an idiomatic expression can never be grammatical incorrect--IMO, e.g. consider the idiomatic expression "I, for one". Is this idiom grammatically incorrect?
Question 2: What is grammar and which constructions of a particular language, say e.g. English, are called incorrect grammar?
I can make some grammatical incorrect statements,
- I am been...
- Suppose, I am...
- I does this...
- We keeps done the works.
- I am not buy it yet.
I would say something is grammatically incorrect if we break the rules of the language in which we are speaking by using a set of words in a way which have never been used that way while communicating. If we can communicate well with each other with some idiomatic expression, which is used repetitively, which contain words in a way which are not used that way in other sentences, then I would say it is grammatical correct. I'd even say that there is a new rule in that language which is used in some specific idiomatic expressions.
As I understand it, grammar is made from a language. A language is not formed from grammar.
Question 3:
Can we compare languages/dialects to decide which is better? Specifically, Can we say that AAVE is inferior than some other dialect of English, if yes then please provide examples with justification, where AAVE is inferior than some other dialect of English and vice-verca if formal English is inferior than AAVE.
I can understand Hindi, Punjabi, spoken Urdu and little bit standard English, could you compare any of these languages and tell which is the best or most superior.
Thank you.