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Is the French feminine noun sensualité asexual? The English noun is sexual. Why? I heed the Etymological Fallacy. But what are some right ways of interpreting the dchotomy, to make it feel reasonable and intuitive? Etymonline only states, but doesn't explain.
... from sensus "feeling" (see sense (n.)). Chiefly "animal instincts and appetites," hence "the lower nature regarded as a source of evil, lusts of the flesh" (1620s).
English has more words of Germanic origin to draw on than French (such as feeling), freeing words of Romance origin for special use. I don't agree sensualité is asexual. It's just that the sexual aspect doesn't dominate. (In feeling it's even weaker, since sensuality exists as an alternative for the sexual meaning.)
The specific negative connotation lechery clearly has a lot to do with protestant hostility to sexuality. France has been dominantly catholic practically forever (the protestants were expelled or killed), so French is less affected by this perversion.
