Since I started to read about language typology and then got a hint about PIE ablaut system I have been wondering if there might be any prehistorical connection between these families at least concerning the apophony as a grammatical tool for distinguishing between tenses, aspects etc.
To begin with, I am aware that these families are considered separate genetically by modern historical linguistics, I am also aware of the Nostratic theory, and I know that in this modern stage semitic vowel alternation does not work in the same way as in reconstructed PIE.
What interests me is not the hypothetical common ancestor for pie and semitic but the question of the ablaut in these branches :
- sources for this phenomenon in both branches
- could these both systems be considered typologically equal
- possible prehistorical contact.
According to Fortson 2004, the probable origin of PIE ablaut is just sound change that later became grammaticalised and expanded to the whole verb system.
I do not what is the situation like in Semitic.
Does anybody have some information on the whole topic? I know that it requires going way back to the proto periods and probably its nothing else than pure speculation. Have there been any researches done in this field? Do you have some references ?