[Please note that in the end this is not essentially a question about English!]
Intervocalic /t/ in Gen Am English may be realised as a voiced alveolar tap, [ɾ].
In words like entertain or ninety where the /t/ occurs after an /n/, it is also often voiced in General American. Given that the nasal stop, /n/, usually involves a full blockage of the air leaving the vocal tract, and that a canonical /t/ is homorganic with a canonical /n/, it is reasonable to suppose that the realisation of the voiced /t/ might actually be an alveolar plosive instead of a tap. So my first question is: is it? Of course, I'm aware that the /nt/ sequence in such words may actually be reduced to a single nasal tap, but I'm only interested in the situation where the /n/ and /t/ are both realised.
My second question, however, is whether it's actually possible for a tap to follow directly on from a (nasal or oral) stop made with the same articulators. So, for example, is it even physically possible for [ɾ] to follow an 'unreleased' alveolar [t]? And is it possible for [ɾ] to directly follow an /n/ if the tongue does not lose contact with the alveolar ridge between the two segments?