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So, I've taken a look on some Finnic conjugation and it just seems VERY similar to Indo-European languages. For instance, https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/n%C3%A4hd%C3%A4#Finnish . One notices immediately 1st and 2nd person plural endings. They seem to be alike but 'm' changes for 't'. Then there is 'n' for 1st person singular and a bit more strange 't' for 2nd.

This just couldn't be as similar to languages I'm familiar with.

In Latin (not only, of course, there is a whole bunch of languages like that) you take 'mus', change 'm' for 't' and get 'tus', which is gibberish, but you can imagine 'tis' instead.

The 'n' (but not 'm', which is also nasal) in 1st singular is more strange, but still can be akin, as 'n' in 'bin' in German.

The similarities also holds for Hungarian https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/n%C3%A9z#Hungarian .The 'm' and 'n' in 1st person got swapped.

So, the question is, can you see it too, or I am just hallucinating? If it is the second case, it's kinda distressing as I've learned couple of grammars using these hallucinations.

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    Many people have seen this, yes. They're grouped into one large-scale family according to the well-known but not widely accepted Nostratic Theory. A more specific relevant Wikipedia article: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-Uralic_languages
    – brass tacks
    Apr 1, 2016 at 18:02
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    1st and 2nd person pronoun forms are cross-linguistically similar at greater than chance frequency, not just in Indo-European and Uralic.
    – user6726
    Apr 1, 2016 at 18:33

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It is widely believed that proto-Uralic and proto-Indo-European were at some stage in contact with each other and that there were borrowings at least in one direction, if not in both.

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