1

This is kind of the opposite of tonogenesis. All languages with stress use a combination of pitch, force and duration to represent a stressed syllable. Some use only (or primarily) pitch.

What sources or papers deal with the introduction of force to a previously pitch-only accent? It occurs in the transition from Attic to Koine' Greek, and several other periods and languages. But has anyone got ideas on what causes this prosodic shift?

5
  • Can you point to any scientific publication that shows the existence of a language where stress uses only pitch? That would be a major discovery. I'm aware of mistaken beliefs on that point, but no actual evidence that such a thing exists.
    – user6726
    May 25 '16 at 21:37
  • I don't think this is particularly controversial. Plenty of languages have been presumed or shown to use primarily pitch for a syllable accent, and even those that don't, like English, have a pitch component. But see for example (regarding Ancient Greek and Vedic Sanskrit:) pp 230ff Allen, W. S. (1973). Accent and Rhythm. Cambridge: Cambridge University Press. May 26 '16 at 7:36
  • See also the question (and answer by TKR) linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/8847/… May 26 '16 at 8:27
  • Allen just presumes. I'm looking for experimental evidence, Something to go with the numerous phonetic studies by Ladefoged, Ohala, Hombert and everyone subsequently.
    – user6726
    May 26 '16 at 15:00
  • "presumed or shown"??? Puts me in mind of a great Beckett quote that goes something like "I would never do such a thing unless it were absolutely necessary or convenient to do so."
    – mobileink
    May 28 '16 at 23:29

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.