I wonder, in Spanish we have to different words for to be (location) and to be (description) from my point of view, as a natural Spanish speaker tho I've spoken English all my life, just not as much, they are different meaning.
I wonder if William Shakespeare was pointing this metaphysical duality/ambiguity. Is there comparative studies or material done about this? does anyone think is there any ground for this ? also I dont know if this is a philological or philosophical question so I might have put it in the wrong place.