In some dialects of English, there seems to be a clear(er) difference between past tense verbs with the auxiliary have as in “I have eaten the pie”, and those without, as in “I ate the pie”. The only distinction that I know of (can discern for my dialect) regarding use of “have” vs. Ø (or “do” in relevant constructions) comes out in the contrast “I have eaten pie” meaning “I have, at some point in life, eaten pie”, vs. “I ate pie” which doesn’t have the connotation of non-specific time. “Have” is incompatible with a time expression in the same S that identifies a specific time (*“I have eaten pie yesterday/last Christmas”) though it is compatible with such an expression in the discourse (“I have eaten pie, in fact it was yesterday”). Apart from that, have+V seems to be interchangeable with bare V.
Is there any paper which lays out the semantics and pragmatics of bare verb vs. have+verb, especially in UK-derived dialects of English?