I should probably confess up front that I don't have a great deal of knowledge of foreign languages, but I have lately taken a strong interest in the structure and nature of language, and have spent a lot of time trying to learn about it.
One thing I've noticed, from all the languages I've learnt about, is that it just seems to be taken for granted that tense is expressed by modifying the verbs.
Now, the answers to Is there any language where time is grammaticalised by inflections on something other than its verbs? have lead me to believe that there are languages which frequently use other means to express tense, but the technique of modifying verbs to express tense still seems (at least as I understand it) to exist in some form in all of them.
Is this true? Have I missed or misunderstood something?
If it is true, I'm very curious about why this might be, and even if it isn't, I'm still curious about why it seems to be so rare. Is there a logical (or psychological) reason why verbs (as opposed to nouns, for example) should be the natural place to express tense.
Of course, if it isn't true, I'd also be fascinated to learn more about the language or languages in question.
(Note that this question has been heavily edited, since in its original form it was almost a duplicate of the linked question).