2

It follows from this course of Sumerian grammar and basic syntax, that the forms of copula (though I prefer to call it 'a predicate-indicating final verb') for the 1st and 2nd singular were identical.

The questions shall be;

a) does Sumerian show any cases of Evidentiality (like e. g. Tibetan, where a question verb addressed to a secong singular person has the 1-st person singular form for a polite evidential form)?

b) What are the meanings of i. and .men?

  • This "course" that you are using seems to have lots of blank chapters. I think they have not finished writing it. The standard work on Sumerian is Edzard's Grammar. A pirated version of it can be found here: archive.org/details/SumerianGrammarhdo – fdb Jun 3 '17 at 18:55
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    Anyway, the answer to your question is: Yes, Sumerian uses the same form for the copula in the 1st and 2nd person singular, and likewise in the present and preterit tenses. But it does have different forms for the independent pronouns. – fdb Jun 3 '17 at 22:33
  • Thanks for the link to the Sumerian grammar, but my question(s) was/were more a)about presence or absence of evidentiality in Sumerian (which, however cannot be proved or disputed by the fact of similarity of some verb forms) and a possible meaning of 'i' (I also doubt that 'me' is a 'copula'-verb as it was stated in the course). The other resourse on Sumerian grammar by Abraham Hendrik Jagersma is tacit about the possible meaning of 'i' as well. politicalavenue.com/10862/Sumerian%20Language%20Books/… – Manjusri Jun 5 '17 at 16:17

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