If they got it from the protolanguage, then why does it have different phonetics? Is it possible that they were developed separately?
- 'Mañana' in Spanish – means 'morning' and 'tomorrow'
- 'Morgen’ in German – means 'morning' and 'tomorrow'
In Slavonic languages we can observe the following:
- In Russian, 'utrom' means 'in the morning'
- In Polish, 'utrom' means 'tomorrow'.
How could phonetics so drastically change? 'Morgen', 'Mañana', 'Utro'? What is the Sanscrit word for 'morning' and 'tomorrow'?
If a word was adopted with all its meanings but with the change of phonetics, like German 'der Schloss’ transferred all its meanings into Russian “Замок” – 'Lock' and 'Castle' simultaneously.
If so, with 'tomorrow', how did people live before without the adopted word 'tomorrow' since it defines the basic understanding of time? I can imagine living without 'castles', but cannot imagine living without 'tomorrow'. I think all Structuralism and Poststructuralism philosophies will argue language could exist without the word 'tomorrow'.
What do Ferdinand de Saussure, Martin Heidegger, Jacques Derrida, Ludwig Wittgenshtein think about this? Has this question already been raised?