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It seems post-velar usually refers to a uvular place of articulation. In the wiki of the Americanist phonetic notation, they are listed as synonyms.

But sometimes the term seems to mean 'everything articulated farther back than velars', so it could cover uvular, pharyngeal, and glottal. Is it commonly used as such a cover term?

Is one of these two uses established practice? Or is the term really used both ways?

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    The null hypothesis for all questions of this type (does terminology x mean this, this or that) is that the term is used all the different ways, but by different groups of people who don't necessarily interact much, leading to needing to know which school of thought a writer comes from in order to look up the correct meaning of a term. It also is quite safe to assume that this goes for all disciplines where there's more than one school of thought, that is: most of them.
    – kaleissin
    Aug 16 '12 at 8:38
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    I suppose the two uses aren't really in fundamental conflict with each other, depending on context.
    – Mark Beadles
    Aug 16 '12 at 13:37
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Post-velar is not a term accepted by the International Phonetic Association. In some older papers (or from older professors) you might have to learn what they mean by it like kaleissin said. That's why the IPA developed the IPA. So no, it's not an established practice. Also, Americanist is outdated and only used by people that don't know how to type on computers, OK, no, just by stubborn professors. I would do what you can to set APA aside, but learn it in auxiliary to IPA if you must for a class.

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