in short: Is there any discussion available online of the following reinterpretation (due to Alwin Kloekhorst) of the stops in the Indo-European phoneme inventory?
classical inventory reinterpretation p t ḱ k kʷ → p: t: kʲ: k: kʷ b d ǵ g gʷ → ˀp ˀt ˀḱ ˀk ˀkʷ bʰ dʰ ǵʰ gʰ gʷʰ → p t kʲ k kʷ
what are the arguments backing up Alwin Kloekhorst's statement ?
full details :
(...) I follow Kortlandt (2003: 259) who argues that the traditional 'voiceless' series (*p, *t, *ḱ, *k and *kʷ) in fact were plain fortis stops [p:, t:, kʲ:, k:, kʷ], the traditional 'voiced' series (*b, *d, *ǵ, *g, *gʷ) were lenis (pre-)glottalized stops [ˀp, ˀt, ˀḱ, ˀk and ˀkʷ] and the traditional 'aspirated voiced' stops (*bʰ, *dʰ, *ǵʰ, *gʰ, *gʷʰ) were plain lenis stops [p, t, kʲ, k, kʷ] (1.1, p.30)
It should be noted that although I tried to copy exactly what Kloekhorst wrote, I had to modify the symbols for (pre-)glottalized stops and; I also avoid, for technical reasons, italicizing as the author did. As as sidenote, I think it's worth noting that Kloekhorst's views seem to have nothing to do with the glottalic theory even if Kloekhorst graduated from Leiden University, where the
"proponents [of the glottalic theory] today are historical linguists at the University of Leiden" (source)
Since Alwin Kloekhorst doesn't justify his allegiance to Kortlandt's assumption, I followed the given reference, namely "Kortlandt (2003; 259)" which leads to the article An Indo-European substratum in Slavic? (Languages in Prehistoric Europe (edd. A. Bammesberger & T. Venneman), Heidelberg, 253-260), but this article seems to be out of my reach. Full bibliography here.
So far, I've only read another article from Frederik Kortlandt, From Proto-Indo-European to Slavic, 1994. But what I read is somehow different from Alwin Kloekhorst's views: Proto-Indo-European would have fortes (p, t, ḱ, ...), glottalic (b, d, ǵ, ...) and aspirated (bʰ, tʰ, ǵʰ, ...) stops and "Dialectal Indo-European" (namely Balto-Slavic, Germanic, Albanian, Armenian, Armenian, Indo-Iranian and probably Tocharian) would have fortes (p, t, ḱ, ...), (pre-)glottalized (ˀb, ˀd, ˀǵ, ...) and voiced (bʰ, tʰ, ǵʰ, ...) stops.
Hence my question: what are the arguments backing up Alwin Kloekhorst's statement?