2

Wiktionary says on PIE -h₃onh₂-:

Descendants

Italic:
...
Latin: -iō (from *-i-h₃onh₂-) (e.g. legiō (“group of selected people”))
Latin: -ō (e.g. Nāsō (“having a conspicuous nose”), poss. Iūnō (“having heavenly authority”))
...
Latin: -tiō (from *-ti-h₃onh₂-)

The -tio suffix:

dictātiō (“a dictating, dictation”), from dictātum, supine of dictō (“I dictate”)
quadripartītiō (“a division into four parts”), from quadripartītum, supine of quadripartiō (“I divide in four parts”)

You see, this article does not say that dictātiō is from dictō, but it says it is from dictātum, supine of dictō.

Supine:

There are two supines, I (first) and II (second). They are originally the accusative and ablative forms of a verbal noun in the fourth declension, respectively.

Fourth declension:

Nominative portus
...
Accusative portum
...
Ablative portū

Inflection of dicto:

non-finite forms - participles - passive - perfect : dictātus
verbal nouns - supine
- accusative : dictātum
- ablative : dictātū

They have common part dictāt, (but most of them has common part dictātu), I can conclude that maybe supine of dictō has stem dictāt, and dictātiō is dictāt + iō.

Most forms of "dicto" have common part "dicta", so I can conclude that maybe dictātiō is dictā + t + i + ō , where t is passive perfect participle suffix and ō makes agent noun from verb according to https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/-o#Latin . so, "i" should be a suffix that makes a verb from a noun.

Was there really "i" suffix that makes verb from a noun?

Or maybe really dictātiō is not from dictātum, but directly from dictō (infinitive dictāre) as dictā + ti + ō, in that case what is meaning of "ti" suffix that does not consist of t + i?

This question is copied from https://latin.stackexchange.com/q/5680 .

  • 1
    Ordinarily on this site we don't like questions specific to a particular language (though that doesn't stop them from being asked, answered and voted up of course. Some are closed and this seems arbitrary). If your question is victim to closure on the grounds of being specific to Latin, you might have more luck asking on Latin stackexchange. – OmarL Dec 10 '17 at 15:53
  • 1
    cross-posting questions on SE sites is discouraged. – prash Dec 11 '17 at 7:09
  • 1
    "put on hold as off-topic" - take in account that the i suffix may be not in latin language but in pie. – qdinar Dec 11 '17 at 8:19
  • 1
    "unless primarily concerned with linguistics rather than usage" - this is not for usage, i do not speak latin language at all. – qdinar Dec 11 '17 at 8:22
  • 1
    "unless primarily concerned with linguistics rather than usage" --> that's a stock message. Please ignore that part. The important part is that this question seems to be more suited to latin.SE, and I would have migrated it, except that you had already asked the question there. People can still see your comments, as the question has not been deleted from here. – prash Dec 11 '17 at 15:46
0

Given that the supine is an -u stem (i.e. fourth declension, in traditional Latin grammar), I'm dubious that -tio is appropriately described as "from the supine". I think it is a parallel formation, which may use the same -to- suffix (or might even use an originally different formant).

| improve this answer | |

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.