For example, I'm wondering whether the Greek/Roman grammarians already wrote about six/four basic forms based on which a Greek/Latin verb can be conjugated in all its forms.

If they did, did they pick the same forms we use today?

If they didn't, when did the concept appear and in relation to which language? When and how did it spread to the description of other languages?

  • This question is somewhat related (although not close enough for a merge) to my question latin.stackexchange.com/questions/14390/… - haven't really found an answer yet, but as for "the same forms we use today", I show in my question that there isn't even quite a consensus over what the principal parts are today.
    – rjpond
    Aug 20, 2020 at 17:40


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