Italian, Spanish, Portuguese, and French all have a (compound) perfect tense, which I find curious, given that Latin did not. (You can alternatively perhaps say that it is either united with the perfect and preterite/aorist tenses, rather than it not existing, but in either case, Classical Latin did not have a separate or compound perfect active tense.)
My question is then: where did this compound perfect tense come from in the (Western) Romance languages? And why are there two of them?
The Germanic languages I'm aware of (English and German) both have a compound perfect tense, while German uses both "to have" and "to be" as auxiliaries. The uses of these auxiliaries aligns rather closely with uses in both French and Italian, while of course Spanish only uses the single auxiliary "to have", like modern English, albeit with a slightly different sense.