I have been listen to Andrea Bocelli's songs lately. A noticeable feature of his pronunciation while singing Spanish songs is that he constantly pronounces the plosives (especially at word-initial positions) with a puff of air.
This is peculiar since in his native language, Italian, aspiration does not contrast and most of the time the plosives, namely p, t, and k are realized unaspirated. So I'm quite curious why would he alter the pronunciation if the phonology of the two languages are similar enough.
