I am trying to understand the function of double (?) nasals in Lycian. Usually an /ñ/ is followed by /n/ and so does /m̃/ which is followed by an /m/. What was the function of this spelling in Lycian? Did they really try to produce both nasals or is it an attempt to render a nasal that has lacked a letter.
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1Those were originally perhaps syllabic [m] and [n], later coda [m] and [n].– Yellow SkyJun 24, 2018 at 15:19
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1Good question! I've also seen them listed as syllabic nasals, but they almost always precede normal <m> and <n>. I don't know Luwian very well, but it's entirely possible that <m̃m> and <ñn> were their ways of writing the syllabic nasals.– Draconis ♦Jun 24, 2018 at 22:20
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1 Answer
Kloekhorst 2008 writes the following:
"the difference between /n/ vs. /nn/ and /m/ vs. /mm/ is only relevant in initial and intervocalic position. In all other cases the ‘geminate’ spellings with -ñn- and -m̃m- are automatic and directly comparable to the geminate spellings of the other consonants (p. 128).
He also provides an extremely useful chart:
If I understand Melchert 1994 correctly, this gemination could be viewed as "continuants spreading across a syllable boundary" (p. 265), e.g.
Arm̃ma- = [arm.ma-] < /arma-/
If such a cluster was in initial position, then an anaptycic vowel was insterted there:
km̃mi- [kəm.mi-] < /kmi-/
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1Forget it. I was refering to i.stack.imgur.com/rdfXP.png I am temporarily in a country that tends to block various internet resources. I logged remotely to a computer at home and I can see the image. You don't need to edit anything. :)– MidasJun 25, 2018 at 19:22