Consider the sentence: "I am a scribe, skillful of fingers."
This is typically stated in Middle Egyptian using the 'm' of predication:
I think this is correct, and 'm' of predication is used when the relationship between the topic and the comment is extrinsic or temporary, such as an occupation.
My question is: is this translation:
which is a nominal sentence, which usually implies an intrinsic connection ("I am your father." vs. "I am a scribe."), necessarily incorrect, or contrary to the spirit of the language, in this type of statement, when expressing an occupation (but also the intrinsic fact that I am "skilled of my fingers")?
iw (introductory particle) =i (first person suffix pronoun) m (preposition: in, as, from) sS (noun, masculine singular: scribe) iqr (adjective: skilled) n(y) (genitival adjective: of) Dbaw (noun, masculine plural: fingers)
. The second example isink (independent pronoun, first person, singular)...
and the rest is the same as in the other example.