Is wikipedia wrong when it suggests that the hebrew schwa/shva has never been pronounced as 'ə'?
Looking at these two wikipedia links
"The word schwa is from the Hebrew word shva (שְׁוָא IPA: [ʃva], classical pronunciation: shəwāʼ [ʃəˑwɒːʔ]), designating the Hebrew niqqud vowel sign shva (two vertical dots written beneath a letter): in Modern Hebrew, it indicates either the phoneme /e/ or the complete absence of a vowel. (The Hebrew shva is also sometimes transliterated using the schwa symbol ə, but the schwa vowel has never been pronounced that way, neither in Modern Hebrew nor in any earlier pronunciation, such as the Tiberian vocalization. " https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shva "It is transliterated as "e", "ĕ", "ə", "'" (apostrophe), or nothing. Note that usage of "ə" for shva is questionable: transliterating modern Hebrew Shva Nach with ə or ' is misleading, since it is never actually pronounced [ə] – the vowel [ə] does not exist in modern Hebrew – moreover, the vowel [ə] is probably not characteristic of earlier pronunciations either (see Tiberian vocalization → Mobile Shwa = Shwa na')."
Isn't it the case that Ashkenazim and Sephardim/Mizrahim, pronounce it as (ə)
Modern israeli hebrew might pronounce it as (e)
Here are some examples that come from audio records of somebody reading from the Torah.
One is ashkenazi one is sephardi but it doesn't matter because either way I think it makes my point that they do a vocal shva like a shwa (ə).
These examples come from Genesis chapter 1
The word has two syllables, Yuh-Hee The first syllable has the hebrew shva/shwa. I put it to you that the sound you hear there listening to that first syllable, is (ə) the IPA Schwa.
https://clyp.it/w0qzxcba Pnei Tehoim
Here we have two words, Pnei, then Tehoim. The first word Pnei, has two syllables, Puh-Nai There is a hebrew shva on the first syllable. I put it to you that the sound on the Puh of Puh-Nai, is (ə) the IPA Schwa.
The second word Tehoim, has two syllables, Tuh-hoim The first syllable has a hebrew shva. I put it to you that again, the sound there on the first syllable of tehoim, is (ə) the IPA Schwa.
(source- https://torahreading.dafyomireview.com/cd/torah-ashkenaz/01-Bereshit-01-PBereshit-Part01.mp3 )
Here we have a word Mrachefet, the first syllable has a vocal shva, and same as all my other examples, it seems to me that that first syllable has the sound (ə) the IPA Schwa.
Wikipedia could be trying to say that the hebrew shva isn't pronounced as (ə) in any pronunciation, not modern hebrew , not earlier than modern hebrew. Or it could be saying it's not modern and not ancient, but is not denying that ashkenazi and sephardi/mizrahi pronunciation is as (ə). But it seems to me to suggest that it's not pronounced like that and is just a wrong transcription.
If we look on google books at a classic book on biblical hebrew "A grammar of biblical hebrew" by Paul Joüon (Author), T. Muraoka (Author) here We see that it says
On page 47 $8 the authors write "The vocalic shva usually transliterated with either [small superscript e] or [upside down e], something like the 'a' in english about.
on page 50, the end of $8, marked f, it says "In Contemporary Israeli pronunciation there is no phonemic distinction between slient shva and vocal shva pronounced e, the latter being a positional and non-obligatory allophone. Thus [gdolim] is perfectly normal and acceptable alongside [gedolim] for גְּדוֹלִים Similarly, e is heard as a rule at morpheme boundaries, e.g. מְדבר [medaber], יְדבר [yedaber], בְּספר [besefer], וְגָדוֹל [vegadol]"
So that book says no doubt talking about how the shva na (vocal shva) is pronounced, that it's pronounced "something like the 'a' in english about."
And funnily enough the wikipedia article on shwa admits that is how shwa is pronounced "'a', as in about
Funnily enough there is a shva/shwa on the first syllable of the word shva/shwa(the hebrew vowel / half vowel known as shva/shwa), and wikipedia describes the pronunciation of shva/shwa as
[ʃəˑwɒːʔ]) in "classical pronunciation".
So for wikipedia to say " the schwa vowel has never been pronounced that way, neither in Modern Hebrew nor in any earlier pronunciation" seems wrong and even contradictory. If by earlier it means earlier than modern. If by earlier wikipedia means pre classical thus simply it isn't stating about ashkenazi and sephardi/mizirahi pronunciation of shva, and it's trying to suggest that they have deviated from an original/earlier pronunciation .
Also since that grammar book by Muraoka says "In Contemporary Israeli pronunciation ........Thus [gdolim] is perfectly normal and acceptable alongside [gedolim] for גְּדוֹלִים " it seems it's saying that in modern hebrew, guh-dolim i.e. with the ə is acceptable and normal, alongside e(apparently modern israeli pronunciation pronounces vocal shva as eh like the e in 'bed').
So, is wikipedia wrong on that, and have I got that right?