Question Which European Languages are not Indo-European? on History.SE got this peculiar comment from user mathreadler:
None of them are. Indo-European is completely made-up language family by Britons who wanted India to have excuse to be part of Europe in some sense so they could use the massive population as power of social influence
Is it really so? Or if not, is there an account available online where a linguistic layman may rear about how this notion came about and how it was refuted?