The Talmud frequently calls an individual a "boor". Two examples:
It has been reported: If one has learned Tanach and Mishnah but not Talmud, Rabbi Eleazar says he is an ignoramus [am ha-aretz]; Rabbi Shmuel ben Nahmani says he is a boor; Rabbi Yannai says he is a Samaritan [rejects sources beyond Torah]; Rabbi Aha ben Yaakov says he is a magician [who misleads others with illusions]. [Sotah 22a]
And one who recites the blessing on any of the mitzvot mentioned in the Torah may not answer 'amen' after himself; and if he does answer 'amen' he is a boor. [Berachot Y 58b]
The Hebrew for 'boor'is also 'boor' -- בור, bet-vav-resh, vocalized BOOR.
Yet this is not the origin of the English word "boor". The dictionary says:
Boor: noun: 1-a churlish, rude, or unmannerly person; 2-a country bumpkin; rustic; yokel; 3-peasant; 4-Boer; Origin: 1545-55; Dutch boer; or Low German bur; (cognate with German Bauer -- farmer), derivative of Germanic to dwell, build, cultivate.
The Arabic word for "boor"is also "boor" -- بور.
Question: Are the facts that the English "boor", the Hebrew בור and the Arabic بور sound identical and mean the same thing just a coincidence?