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For example: (1) The officer believed [NP Mary and me]

Of course, the distribution of ACC pronouns in English doesn't really map onto ACC in overt morphological case languages.

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    Every language I can think of with morphological case would use the accusative in a conjunct that's the object of a verb: the verb assigns accusative case to the conjunct, which passes it on to both nouns. Do you mean in cases like "Mary and me went to the store"? – Draconis Jun 28 '19 at 15:37
  • At the risk of unwarranted generalization, I'd say that every language that has an accusative case (not just fossilized forms of it, like English me, which can be misleading) requires all conjuncts of a conjunction to be in the accusative case, if the accusative case is warranted at all. Latin example: Edo panem et caseum (I eat bread and cheese). – LjL Jun 29 '19 at 23:38
  • @Draconis, yes - I miswrote the original. Your example, "Mary and me went to the store", is better. are [NP1-NOM and NP2-ACC] constructions permitted in overt case languages? – Jeremiah Cashore Jun 30 '19 at 3:22
  • @JeremiahCashore Not in any language I speak—but "Mary and me went to the store" is also somewhat stigmatized in English, bordering on ungrammatical. – Draconis Jun 30 '19 at 3:26
  • Would you mind editing the question to say more clearly what you mean? If so I can write an answer. – Draconis Jun 30 '19 at 3:28

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