Although the active voice is predominant in the English language the ‘ideal’ proportion of recommended passive sentences is still regarded as between 5% and 10%(source1) ( source2). Which is substantially more than in languages like Spanish and, though I couldn't find numerical data to compare the percentage use of the passive voice, experience of writing in Spanish and memories of Spanish teachers accustomed to bilingual students warning about overusing the passive voice "like in English", as well as these language learning sites expressing that the passive is not as common in Spanish, Italian and German as it is in English, provide me with some confirmation.
As such, what intrinsic difference does English have that would allow more sentences to make sense in the passive voice than the languages mentioned above? Sources would be appreciated.
P.S. It's still gramatically correct in all the languages mentioned above to use the pasive voice to whatever degree, but many more sentences in this voice would be discouraged as they'd simply not make much sense or be very hard to understand (particullarly in conversations).
Disclaimer: Perhaps other European languages use the passive more often, but even so, why is this the case, I'm particularly interested in comparing English to Spanish or Italian or German.