Not as far as we know.
Proto-Indo-European is reconstructed as having an "*nt-participle", an active eventive participle formed by adding *-nt- to the stem (sometimes with an *e or *o before it). This is where the Latin present active participle comes from, and I would assume the Gothic as well, though I don't know as much about the history of Gothic.
Meanwhile, the third-person plural active eventive endings are reconstructed as *-nti primary, *-nt secondary. This is where the Latin and Gothic finite verb ending comes from. (My knowledge of the history of Slavic is even more limited, but I would assume the participle and finite form you cite come from the same sources as well, with some sort of sound change removing the nasal.)
Are these two forms, the participle and the third person plural, related? Possibly! They certainly look similar, and it's possible they come from some shared source in Pre-Proto-Indo-European, or one derived from the other, or something like that. But as with most things back before PIE, there's just not enough evidence to say one way or the other. The default is to assume no connection (the null hypothesis), but here it's due to the lack of evidence, rather than any specific evidence of un-related-ness.