Do we have any evidence or research on the linguistic evolution of idioms?

For example, if two languages in the same language family have idioms with a similar meaning, is it likely that such an idiom was present in the proto or parent language of this family? Have any such reconstructions been done?

Or, is it more usual that one of the languages borrowed the idiom from another language after they were completely separate languages?

  • What about likewise emergence and evolution within a given language?
    – matanox
    Oct 30, 2019 at 8:49
  • An example of what you seem to describe is Indo-European stock phrases. The reference book on them is How to Kill a Dragon by Calvert Waltkins. Some examples are here Oct 30, 2019 at 13:27


Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.