Assuming their past is regular, are they pronounced as /wɪŋd/ and /lɑːŋd/ or does a [gd] surface at the end?

  • 1
    Those accents which have /g/ in the base form have it in the past. Those which don't, don't. (This belongs on ELL, not on Linguistics).
    – Colin Fine
    Dec 27, 2019 at 17:11
  • 3
    True. However, long (v) does have one interesting morphological feature. The comparative -er suffix added to long (adj) meaning 'more long' makes /lɔŋ/ into /lɔŋɡər/ (American vowels) with a /ɡ/. But the agentive -er suffix added to long (v), meaning 'one who longs', adds no /g/. One who longs is a longer (same spelling), but there's no /g/ -- it's pronounced /lɔŋər/.
    – jlawler
    Dec 27, 2019 at 17:23
  • @jlawler. An interesting observation. I wonder if there is some general rule about this.
    – fdb
    Dec 27, 2019 at 22:48
  • I find [gd] possible, in a slow, emphatic pronunciation. After all, whether you get the intrusive [g] is just a matter of timing the movement of the velum and the back of the tongue.
    – Greg Lee
    Dec 28, 2019 at 0:30
  • @fdb: I don't think so. Strong follows long, but wrong doesn't. I can't think of any other adjectives ending in /ŋ/.
    – Colin Fine
    Dec 28, 2019 at 0:32


Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.