I am looking at this:

enter image description here

I think this is a verb (some others are even less clear). What does besaz(en)- mean? The parentheses and the hyphen. The M is for Middle Persian, but there is no indication that this is truly a verb. Maybe I skipped over something in the introduction.

It seems that the nouns are straightforward to parse/glean out of this dictionary, but what about the verbs? How do I end up with a final infinitive verb form to write down?

2 Answers 2


Here in Mackenzie’s dictionary verbs are normally cited in the infinitive form, but if (as in this case) the infinitive is not attested, the dictionary quotes the present stem followed by a hyphen. So bēšāz(ēn)- means that the present stem of this verb can be either bēšāzēn- or just bēšāz-.

“M” introduces the spelling in Manichaean script.

You might find it useful to read the very informative introduction.


I think you are right about bēšāz(ēn)- being a verb (since the išnih is the gerund). I also suspect it's the imperative form; because in the modern Persian language besaz (بساز) is the imperative form of sakhtan (ساختن) which means to make, to build.

In modern language we also have to heal and to cure as the meaning of this verb; but it's usage is limited. For example, an addict tells another addict: "Bezar besazamet" (بذار بسازمت) when they want to give drugs to the addicts who are in pain, which means "let me cure you". Or the addict who is in pain tells another addict: "Man ra besaz" (من را بساز) which means "cure me".

  • These are two different words.
    – fdb
    Commented Sep 12, 2023 at 14:06

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